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GobbleGobble,

03-08 03:12 PM

Read the previous entry. The Congress wanted to let people who now pay taxes, keep paying taxes. The taxpayer is confident in his innocence, and so are we.

I think you should file a case immediately, saying that in the case of people who buy their own insurance the government is not taxing them even though they do not benefit from the socialized insurance. If the feds can take their money to pay for a insurance that everyone has to buy, that should be all the IRS needs to show the statute of limitations does not apply. But the IRS said that even if the statute of limitations is 3 years, they can still file if the person still has a tax return on file. This is way over their authority to set the terms of the statute of limitations. This case is going to be decided in favor of the plaintiff.

If the person is innocent, they should be able to file a lawsuit. Why is there a statute of limitations, if they are not allowed to sue if they know they are innocent and have proof?

I really don’t get why the government would want to be in the business of insurance. If they want to make an investment, why not put the money into Social Security or another pension fund that they are already taxing people into.

Why not file a lawsuit to challenge the constitutionality of taxing American people on their labor?

I guess the ____ should really be in charge of insurance. After all, the ____ is a company, and companies are in the business of insurance. It would fit their form of business.

dave_222,

03-08 03:18 PM

Its too much to go through, but can somebody help me understand what I need to do?

Applying for GC on July 2, 2007. With my application on July 2, 2007, I filed I-485 for EB1 on 1/17/08.

On 1/15/09, I-485 for EB2 on 1/17/08 was approved.

On 2/18/09, I-140 was approved.

On 2/18/09, my employer filed I-129.

A month ago (3/16/09), my I-485 for EB2 on 1/17/08 was NOT approved. There was no decision, it just told me to check back in 60 days.

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Reference request: Classifying cofibrations in $\textbf{Top}^1$

Let $\textbf{Top}^1$ be the category of topological spaces which are totally disconnected (closed and bounded subsets are compact). There is a functor $\textbf{Top} \to \textbf{Top}^1$ which takes a space $X$ to the space $X^+$ consisting of the disjoint union of $X$ and one point, topologized so that the point is closed and the open sets of $X$ and their images under the inclusion $X \to X^+$ are compact. The functor is called the “compactification functor”.
This functor has a left adjoint which takes a space $Y$ and collapses it to the one point. This operation is called “making $Y$ compact”.
Consider now the case where $Y$ is not discrete. Then there are two options: either $Y$ is totally disconnected and the map $Y \to \{pt\}$ is open, or there is one point in $Y$ which is not closed (and so not compact). It is the second case that we want to be interested in for the following reasons:

If $\{pt\}$ is compact (in the usual topology) and $Y$ is totally disconnected, then $Y$ is a point. Hence the only cofibrations of $\textbf{Top}^1$ are those between points and thus are just the trivial cofibrations.
The point of the following question is to find the cofibrations of $\textbf{Top}^1$ in the first case and which they are, i.e. show that they are precisely those inclusions $Y \to \{pt\}$ of a compact space into a point.

In fact this question is a part of an extensive geometric attempt to understand the notion of weak homotopy equivalence. I have done some research but came up with only these two references which deal with the compactification functor in the case of a discrete target and none in the case of a totally disconnected target. So I am left with two questions:

Are the classifications in 1. and 2. correct?
Are there other references on this topic?

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